We can do this, right?
JBossOutputStream on JVM for vendor 1 -> JBossInputStream on JVM for vendor 2
And this holds true regardless of whether the serialVersionUID is specified in code?
In other words, JBoss serialization has *nothing* to do w/ the serialization algorithm on the JVM from which it is running in.
Yes.. this is correct...
(sorry.. I missed this post before)